| Literature DB >> 28756639 |
Bin Cao1, Yi Huang2, Dan-Yang She3, Qi-Jian Cheng4, Hong Fan5, Xin-Lun Tian6, Jin-Fu Xu7, Jing Zhang8, Yu Chen9, Ning Shen10, Hui Wang11, Mei Jiang12, Xiang-Yan Zhang13, Yi Shi14, Bei He10, Li-Xian He8, You-Ning Liu3, Jie-Ming Qu4.
Abstract
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in adults is an infectious disease with high morbidity in China and the rest of the world. With the changing pattern in the etiological profile of CAP and advances in medical techniques in diagnosis and treatment over time, Chinese Thoracic Society of Chinese Medical Association updated its CAP guideline in 2016 to address the standard management of CAP in Chinese adults. Extensive and comprehensive literature search was made to collect the data and evidence for experts to review and evaluate the level of evidence. Corresponding recommendations are provided appropriately based on the level of evidence. This updated guideline covers comprehensive topics on CAP, including aetiology, antimicrobial resistance profile, diagnosis, empirical and targeted treatments, adjunctive and supportive therapies, as well as prophylaxis. The recommendations may help clinicians manage CAP patients more effectively and efficiently. CAP in pediatric patients and immunocompromised adults is beyond the scope of this guideline. This guideline is only applicable for the immunocompetent CAP patients aged 18 years and older. The recommendations on selection of antimicrobial agents and the dosing regimens are not mandatory. The clinicians are recommended to prescribe and adjust antimicrobial therapies primarily based on their local etiological profile and results of susceptibility testing, with reference to this guideline.Entities:
Keywords: adjunctive therapy; adult; aetiology; antimicrobial therapy; community-acquired pneumonia; diagnosis; prevention
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Year: 2017 PMID: 28756639 PMCID: PMC7162259 DOI: 10.1111/crj.12674
Source DB: PubMed Journal: Clin Respir J ISSN: 1752-6981 Impact factor: 2.570
Evidence level and grade of recommendation
| Evidence level and grade of recommendation | Description |
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| Evidence from well‐designed, randomized, controlled trials (RCTs), authoritative guidelines and high quality systematic reviews and meta‐analyses |
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| Evidence from RCTs with some limitations (eg, trials without allocation concealment, nonblinded, or loss to follow‐up not reported), cohort studies, case series and case‐control studies |
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| Evidence from case reports, expert opinions and in vitro antimicrobial susceptibility studies without clinical data |
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| Most patients, physicians and policy makers will adopt the recommended action. |
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| The recommendation will be adopted by the majority, but not by some individuals. Decisions should be made with consideration of the specific condition of the patient to reflect his/her values and willingness. |
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| Insufficient evidence; decisions must be made |
Clinical manifestations of pneumonia in terms of different pathogens
| Potential pathogen | Clinical manifestations |
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| Acute onset, high fever with potential shivers, purulent sputum, brown bloody sputum, chest pain, significant increase in peripheral WBC, increased C‐reactive protein (CRP), signs of pulmonary consolidation or moist rales; radiograph shows alveolar infiltrates or lobar or segmental distribution of consolidation. |
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| Under 60 years of age, with few underlying diseases; continuous cough, no sputum or no bacteria discovered in sputum smear test, few pulmonary signs, peripheral WBC <10 × 109/L; radiograph may show lesions in the upper lung field of both lungs, centrilobular nodules, tree‐in‐bud sign, ground‐glass opacities, or thickening of bronchial wall and may show signs of consolidation with disease progression. |
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| Mostly seasonal, may have history of exposure to an epidemic or clustered outbreak, acute upper respiratory tract symptoms, myalgia, normal or decreased peripheral WBC, procalcitonin (PCT) < 0.1 ng/mL, unresponsive to treatment with antibacterial agents; radiograph shows bilateral, interstitial exudates in multiple lobes and/or ground‐glass opacities, which may be accompanied by consolidation. |
Features of common scoring scales for evaluating CAP severity
| Scales | Indices and calculation | Risk ratings | Recommendation |
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| 5 indices in total; 1 pt for each criterion satisfied:
Disturbance of consciousness; BUN >7 mmol/L; RR ≥ 30 bpm; SBP < 90 mm Hg or DBP ≤ 60 mm Hg; age ≥ 65 yrs. |
Mortality risk evaluation: 0–1: low risk; 2: moderate risk; 3–5: high risk | Simple, highly sensitive, easy for clinical application |
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| 4 indices in total; 1 pt for each criterion satisfied:
Disturbance of consciousness; RR ≥ 30 bpm; SBP < 90 mm Hg or DBP ≤ 60 mm Hg; age ≥ 65 yrs. |
Mortality risk evaluation: 0: low risk, outpatient treatment; 1–2: moderate risk, hospital admission or extramural treatment with close follow‐up is recommended; ≥3: high risk, patient should be hospitalized | Suitable for medical institutions unable to perform biochemical tests |
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| Sum of age (female minus 10 pts) and scores for all risk factors:
Residing in a geracomium (+10 pts); Underlying disease: tumour (+30 pts); hepatic disease (+20 pts); congestive heart failure (+10 pts); cerebrovascular disease (+10 pts); renal disease (+10 pts); Physical signs: change in state of consciousness (+20 pts); RR ≥ 30 bpm (+20 pts); SBP < 90 mm Hg (+20 pts); body temperature < 35°C or ≥ 40°C (+15 pts); heart rate ≥ 125 bpm (+10 pts); Laboratory tests: arterial blood pH < 7.35 (+30 pts); BUN ≥30 mg/dL (or 11 mmol/L) (+20 pts); blood sodium < 130 mmol/L (+20 pts); blood glucose ≥ 14 mmol/L (+10 pts); Haematocrit (Hct) < 30% (+10 pts); PaO2 < 60 mm Hg (or fingertip O2 saturation < 90%) (+10 pts); Chest radiograph: pleural effusion (+10 pts). |
Evaluation of mortality risk: Low risk: Class I (<50 years of age, without underlying diseases); Class II (≤70 pts); Class III (71–90 pts); Moderate risk: Class IV (91–130 pts); High risk: Class V (>130 pts). Patients at Classes IV and V need hospitalization |
Sensitive measurement for evaluating whether a patient needs hospitalization, highly specific. Complex scoring system |
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Major indices:
Arterial blood pH < 7.30; SBP < 90 mm Hg. Minor indices:
RR ≥ 30 bpm; Disturbance of consciousness; BUN > 11 mmol/L; PaO2 < 54 mm Hg or oxygenation index < 250 mm Hg; Age ≥ 80 yrs; Chest X‐ray showing multiple‐lobe or bilateral pulmonary involvement. | Patients are diagnosed as severe CAP if any one of the major indices or two of the minor indices are met | Simple scoring method used for emergency diagnosis of severe CAP |
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Sum of scores for all the following risk factors: SBP < 90 mm Hg (+2 pts); chest X‐ray showing bilateral pulmonary involvement (+1 pt); serum albumin < 35 g/L (+1 pt); RR ≥ 30 bpm (> 50 yo) or ≥ 25 bpm (≤ 50 yo) (+1 pt); heart rate ≥ 125 bpm (+1 pt); New onset of disturbance of consciousness (+1 pt); hypoxemia (+2 pts): PaO2 < 70 mm Hg, or fingertip O2 saturation ≤ 93%, or oxygenation index < 333 mm Hg (≤ 50 yo); PaO2 < 60 mm Hg, or fingertip O2 saturation ≤ 90%, or oxygenation index < 250 mm Hg (>50 yo); arterial blood pH < 7.35 (+2 pts). |
0–2: low risk 3–4: moderate risk 5–6: high risk 7–8: extremely high risk | A score > 3 indicates the possibility that the patient needs respiratory monitoring or circulatory support therapy |
Recommended etiological tests for CAP under specific clinical situations
| Clinical conditions | Sputum smear and culture | Blood culture | Pleural effusion culture |
| Respiratory tract virus screening | LP1 urinary antigen | SP urinary antigen | Fungal antigen | Tuberculosis screen g |
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aOther than sputum, acceptable samples also include lower respiratory tract samples and histological biopsy samples such as ETA (endotracheal aspiration), BALF (bronchoalveolar lavage fluid) and PSB (protected specimen brush).
bBlood culture should include aerobic and anaerobic bacterial cultures.
c Mycoplasma, Chlamydia and Legionella screen items are nucleic acid and serum specific antibodies.
dScreening tests are for nucleic acid, antigens, or serum specific antibodies of respiratory tract viruses.
eLP1: Legionella pneumophila serogroup 1.
fSP, Streptococcus pneumoniae.
gTuberculosis screening prefers sputum smear for the test of acid‐fast bacteria. Mycobacteria culture and nucleic acid detection should be performed if applicable.
hFor immunodeficient patients, in addition to the relatively comprehensive etiological tests listed in this table, patients should also be screened for opportunistic pathogens, such as Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, cytomegalovirus and nontuberculous mycobacteria.
iSputum smears should be used to discover bacteria and fungi, while bacterial and fungal cultures should be conducted simultaneously.
jPatients with history of travel to special epidemic regions should also be screened for corresponding respiratory tract contagious diseases.
Primary testing methods for CAP pathogens and implications for diagnosis
| Pathogen | Testing method | Samples used | Implication for diagnosis | Description |
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Direct smear microscopy (Gram staining) | Sputum, ETA, BALF and PSB samples; blood, pleural effusion and bronchial mucosa biopsy samples; lung biopsy samples |
1. Test results that can be used as evidence for etiological diagnosis: (1) The pathogen is found in cultures of blood or other sterile samples (such as pleural effusion, lung biopsy samples, etc.) 2. Test results that are important reference for etiological diagnosis: (1) Significant growth of dominant bacteria (≥ +++) in qualified lower respiratory tract samples (except for normal colonization flora); (2) Small amount of bacterial growth in qualified lower respiratory tract samples, but results are consistent with smear microscopy results ( Test results that can be used as evidence for etiological diagnosis: The pathogen is found in cultures of blood or other sterile samples (such as pleural effusion, lung biopsy samples, etc.) | For qualified lower respiratory tract samples, sputum samples must meet the following conditions: squamous cells < 10 per low‐power field; polymorphonuclear leukocytes >25 per low‐power field, or the ratio between the two is <1:2.5 |
| Regular culture | ||||
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| Fresh urine | |||
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Direct smear microscopy (Gram staining) | Blood, pleural effusion | ||
| Anaerobial cultures | ||||
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| Smear microscopy (microscopy with Ziehl‐Neelsen staining, fluorescence microscopy) | Sputum, ETA, BALF and PSB samples; blood, pleural effusion, bronchial mucosa biopsy samples; lung biopsy samples |
1. Test results that can be used as evidence for etiological diagnosis: (1) Acid‐fast bacilli discovered in smear microscopy, but cannot differentiate between tuberculosis mycobacteria or non‐tuberculosis mycobacteria 2. Test results that are important references for etiological diagnosis: A positive result for mycobacteria nucleic acid detection, and can differentiate between tuberculosis mycobacteria or non‐tuberculosis mycobacteria |
1. Fluorescent smear microscopy is more sensitive than Ziehl‐Neelsen staining 2. The sensitivity of mycobacteria culture is superior to that of smear microscopy; in vitro susceptibility testing can be performed, but it is more time‐consuming and complex, and has a higher biological safety requirement for laboratories 3. Xpert MTB/RIF is the method recommended by WHO for testing mycobacteria. It can provide information on rifampin resistance simultaneously 4. A positive result for IGRAs indicates that the host has been sensitized by tuberculosis mycobacteria antigens; a positive result for TST indicates previous infection of tuberculosis, which is not recommended for diagnosis of active tuberculosis according to the WHO |
| Mycobacterial culture | ||||
| Nucleic acid detection (simultaneous mycobacteria culture is recommended) | ||||
| IGRA | Whole blood samples | |||
| TST | ||||
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| Serum specific antibody assay (IFA, ELISA) | Two sets of serum samples from acute phase and recovery phase |
1. Test results that can be used as evidence for etiological diagnosis: (1) 2. Test results that are important reference for etiological diagnosis: (1) Serum |
1. A positive result for 2. 3. Although 4. |
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| Urine | |||
| Nucleic acid assay | Sputum, ETA, BALF and PSB samples; blood, pleural effusion, bronchial mucosa biopsy samples; lung biopsy samples | |||
| Isolation and culture (BCYE nutrient culture medium, GVPC and MWY screening culture medium) | ||||
| Antigen assay in lower respiratory tract samples (DFA) | ||||
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| Serum specific antibody assays (CF, PA, MAG, EIA, IFA) | Two sets of serum samples from acute phase and recovery phase |
1. Test results that can be used as evidence for etiological diagnosis: (1) 2. Test results that are important reference for etiological diagnosis: (1) A positive result for |
1. A positive result for 2. Serum specific antibody titer obtained 3. |
| Nucleic acid assay | Oropharyngeal swabs; nasopharyngeal swabs; sputum, ETA, BALF and PSB samples; blood, pleural effusion, bronchial mucosa biopsy samples; lung biopsy samples | |||
| Culture (special medium) | ||||
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| Serum specific antibody detection (MIF) | Two sets of serum samples from acute phase and recovery phase |
1. Test results that can be used as evidence for etiological diagnosis: (1) 2. Test results that are important reference for etiological diagnosis: (1) A positive result for |
1. 2. Serum specific antibody assay has limited value for early‐stage diagnosis; an increase in specific IgM, or a quadruple or higher increase in IgG titer across two sets of serum samples is relevant for retrospective diagnostic 3. |
| Nucleic acid detection | Oropharyngeal swabs; nasopharyngeal swabs; sputum, ETA, BALF and PSB samples; blood, pleural effusion, bronchial mucosa biopsy samples; lung biopsy samples | |||
| Culture (cell culture) | ||||
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| Nucleic acid assay | Pharyngeal swabs; nasal swabs; sputum, ETA, BALF and PSB samples |
1. Test results that can be used as evidence for etiological diagnosis: (1) (2) A positive result for (3) (4) Serum 2. Test results that are important reference for etiological diagnosis: (1) Serum |
1. A definite diagnosis of Q fever pneumonia can be established if 2. A positive result for 3. Serum |
| Serum specific antibody assays (CF, MAT, IFA, ELISA) | Two sets of serum samples from acute phase and recovery phase | |||
| Histopathological examination | Lung biopsy samples | |||
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| Nucleic acid assay | Respiratory tract samples such as oropharyngeal swabs, nasopharyngeal swabs, nasopharyngeal aspirate, airway aspirate and sputum |
1. Test results that can be used as evidence for etiological diagnosis: (1) A positive result for nucleic acid assay of influenza virus, parainfluenza virus Types 1–4, RSV, adenovirus, coronavirus, hMPV and so on in oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal swabs, qualified lower respiratory tract samples, or lung tissue samples 2. Test results that are important reference for etiological diagnosis: A positive result for specific IgM of respiratory tract viruses such as influenza virus or RSV. |
1. A positive result for viral isolation and culture is the gold standard for diagnosis of respiratory tract viral infection. It has important value for the discovery and diagnosis of pathogens of respiratory contagious disease with new or sudden onset. However, the test is relatively time‐consuming, and requires better laboratory conditions, so it is not a regular test for clinical setting. 2. The sensitivity and specificity of real‐time PCR/rRT‐PCR (real‐time reverse transcriptase PCR) are relatively high. It is a preferred method for rapid diagnosis of respiratory tract infection with influenza virus, avian influenza virus and so on. 3. Viral antigen assay in qualified lower respiratory tract samples can be used as an initial screening method for rapid early‐stage diagnosis. It is less sensitive than nucleic acid assay. Patient's epidemiological history and clinical symptoms should be taken into account when interpreting the results. Nucleic acid assay or viral isolation and culture can be performed for further validation if necessary 4. Serum specific viral antibody assay is the main method for retrospective diagnosis |
| Viral antigen assay (DFA, colloidal gold method) | ||||
| Serum specific antibody assays (IFA, ELISA, CF, haemagglutination inhibition assay) | Two sets of serum samples from acute phase and recovery phase | |||
| Viral isolation and culture | Fresh respiratory tract samples such as oropharyngeal swabs, nasopharyngeal swabs, nasopharyngeal aspirate, airway aspirate and sputum | |||
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| Smear microscopy (Gram staining, microscopy with KOH as floating fluid, Giemsa staining, GMS staining, mucicarmine staining) | Sputum, ETA, BALF and PSB samples; bronchial mucosa biopsy samples or lung biopsy samples |
1. Test results that can be used as evidence for etiological diagnosis: (1) Fungus found in cultures of blood or other sterile samples (such as pleural effusion, lung biopsy tissue samples, etc.) (note that samples with positive result of 2. Test results that are important reference for etiological diagnosis: (1) A positive result for serum or BALF galactomannan antigen; (2) A positive result for 1–3‐β‐D glucan antigen, with exclusion of factors that can potentially cause a false positive result |
1. Besides regular Gram stain microscopy, mucicarmine staining can also be used for detection of 2. A positive result for the culture of a sample from a usually sterile site using an aseptic technique is the gold standard of diagnosis; for non‐sterile samples, the possibility of colonization or pollution should be carefully excluded 3. Serum 1–3‐β‐D glucan antigen assay has some value for the diagnosis of invasive fungal infection, except for 4. There is possibility of false negative for serum cryptococcal capsular polysaccharide antigen assay in patients with non‐disseminated cryptococcosis. The studies currently available do not support the test to be used for efficacy evaluation and prognosis prediction 5. Although a positive result for cryptococcal capsular polysaccharide antigen in cerebrospinal fluid is not direct evidence for diagnosis of pulmonary cryptococcosis, physicians should be alert to the possibility of concomitant cryptococcosis for patients with positive results of cryptococcal capsular polysaccharide antigen in cerebrospinal fluid |
| Fungal culture | Sputum, ETA, BALF and PSB samples; pleural effusion, bronchial mucosa biopsy samples; lung biopsy samples, blood | |||
| 1–3‐β‐D glucan antigen | Serum | |||
| Galactomannan antigen | Serum, BALF | |||
| Cryptococcal capsular polysaccharide antigen (latex agglutination method, EIA) | Serum, cerebrospinal fluid | |||
| Histopathological examination | Lung biopsy samples | |||
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| Smear or tissue smear microscopy | Sputum or other lower respiratory tract samples, pleural effusion, lung tissue biopsy samples |
1. Test results that can be used as evidence for etiological diagnosis: (1) Parasite body, eggs, trophozoite, cysts, or oocysts found in smear microscopy of qualified respiratory tract samples 2. Test results that are important reference for etiological diagnosis: (1) A positive result for intradermal test with parasitic antigens |
1. Eggs of 2. If an opportunistic parasitic infection such as toxoplasmosis is suspected in an immunodeficient patient, nucleic acid assay can be selected as a primary testing method to obtain rapid early‐stage diagnosis 3. For immunocompetent patients, serum specific antibody assay is the most commonly used initial screening test for parasitic infections. However, since serum specific antibodies continue to exist for a long time after onset of parasitic infections, a positive result for an intradermal test with parasitic antigens or a positive result for serum specific antibodies (IgG, IgM or IgA) does not necessarily indicate acute infection |
| Histopathological examination | Lung tissue biopsy samples | |||
| Nucleic acid assay | Blood, cerebrospinal fluid, BALF, bronchial mucosa or lung biopsy samples | |||
| Serum specific antibody assays (DT, ELISA, IFA, HA, IHA, ISAGA, Western blot) | Serum | |||
| Antigen assays (ELISA, ICT) | Blood, cerebrospinal fluid, pleural effusion and so on. |
Abbreviations: BALF, bronchoalveolar lavage fluid; BCYE, buffered charcoal‐yeast extract; CF, complement fixation test; CFDA, China Food and Drug Administration; DFA, direct fluorescent antibody test; DT, Sabin‐Feldman dye test; ELISA, enzyme‐linked immunosorbent assay; EIA, enzyme immunoassay; ETA, endotracheal aspirate; Giemsa, Giemsa staining; GMS, Gomori Methenamine Silver; GVPC, glycine‐vancomycin‐polymyxin‐cycloheximide; HA, haemagglutination assay; hMPV: human Metapneumovirus; ICT, immunochromatographic test; IFA, indirect immunofluorescence assay; IGRA, interferon‐gamma release assay; IHA, indirect haemagglutination test; ISAGA, immunosorbent agglutination assay; KOH, potassium hydroxide; MAG, microparticle agglutination; MAT, micro agglutination test; MIF, microimmunofluorescence assay; MWY, modified Wadowsky Yee agar; PA, particle agglutination test; PSB, protected specimen brush; RSV, respiratory syncytial virus; TST, tuberculin skin test; WHO, World Health Organization.
Selection of anti‐infective agents for initial empirical therapy
| Populations | Common pathogens | Anti‐infective agents for initial empirical therapy | Comment |
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| (1) Aminopenicillins, penicillins‐β‐lactamase ‐inhibitor combinations; (2) I or II generation cephalosporins; (3) doxycycline or minocycline; (4) respiratory quinolones; (5) macrolides | (1) Differentiate among bacterial pneumonia, |
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| (1) Penicillins‐β‐lactamase‐inhibitor combinations; (2) II or III generation cephalosporins (oral); (3) respiratory quinolones; (4) penicillins‐lactamase ‐inhibitor combinations, II generation cephalosporins, III generation cephalosporins combined with doxycycline or minocycline or macrolides | Monotherapy with doxycycline or minocycline or macrolides is not recommended in patients with risk factors of resistant |
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| (1) Penicillin G, aminopenicillins, penicillins‐β‐lactamase‐inhibitor combinations; (2) II or III generation cephalosporins, cephamycins, oxacephems; (3) the above drugs combined with doxycycline, minocycline or macrolides; (4) respiratory quinolones; (5) macrolides | (1) Only 1.9% the |
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| (1) Penicillins‐β‐lactamase‐inhibitor combinations; (2) III generation cephalosporins or their enzyme‐inhibitor combinations, carbapenems such as cephamycins, oxacephems, ertapenem; (3) monotherapy of the above drugs or in combination with macrolides; (4) respiratory quinolones | (1) |
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| (1) Penicillins‐β‐lactamase‐inhibitor combinations, III generation cephalosporins, cephamycins, oxacephems, ertapenem combined with macrolides; (2) respiratory quinolones | (1) |
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| (1) Penicillins‐β‐lactamase‐inhibitor combinations, III generation cephalosporins or in combination with beta‐lactamase inhibitors, carbapenems such as ertapenem combined with macrolides; (2) penicillins‐β‐lactamase‐inhibitor combinations, III generation cephalosporins or in combination with beta‐lactamase inhibitors, carbapenems such as ertapenem combined with respiratory quinolones | (1) Evaluate the risk of infection with ESBLs‐producing |
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| (1) β‐lactams with antipseudomonal activity; (2) quinolones with antipseudomonal activity; (3) β‐lactams with antipseudomonal activity combined with quinolones or aminoglycosides with antipseudomonal activity; (4) combination of β‐lactams, aminoglycosides and quinolones with antipseudomonal activity | Risk factors include: (1) airway |
I generation cephalosporins: cefazolin, cefradine, cephalexin, cefathiamidine and so on. II generation cephalosporins: cefuroxime, cefamandole, cefotiam, cefaclor, cefprozil, and so on. III generation cephalosporins: intravenous: ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ceftizoxime and so on; oral: cefdinir, cefixime, cefpodoxime proxetil, cefditoren pivoxil and so on. Respiratory quinolones: levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin. Aminopenicillins: amoxicillin, ampicillin. Penicillins‐β‐lactamase‐inhibitor combinations (not including penicillins with antipseudomonal activity, such as piperacillin, ticarcillin): amoxicillin‐clavulanic acid, amoxicillin‐sulbactam, ampicillin‐sulbactam and so on. Macrolides: azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin. Quinolones with antipseudomonal activity: ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin. Beta‐lactams with antipseudomonal activity: ceftazidime, cefepime, aztreonam, piperacillin, piperacillin‐tazobactam, ticarcillin, ticarcillin‐clavulanic acid, cefoperazone, cefoperazone‐sulbactam, imipenem‐cilastatin, meropenem, panipenem‐betamipron, biapenem. Cephamycins: cefoxitin, cefmetazole, cefotetan, cefminox. Oxacephems: moxalactam, flomoxef. Aminoglycosides: amikacin, gentamicin, etimicin, netilmicin, tobramycin and so on. Neuraminidase inhibitors: oseltamivir, zanamivir, peramivir. Drugs for treating MRSA pneumonia: vancomycin, linezolid, teicoplanin, norvancomycin, ceftaroline.
ESBL: extended spectrum β‐lactamase; MRSA: methicillin‐resistant Staphylococcus aureus; RSV: respiratory syncytial virus.
Common pathogens of CAP, common anti‐infective agents, as well as dosage and administration
| Pathogens | Preferred anti‐infective agents | Alternate anti‐infective agents | Comment |
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| Penicillin G 1.6–2.4 million units, IV q4h‐q6h; ampicillin 4–8 g IV, divided into 2–4 doses; ampicillin‐sulbactam 1.5–3 g IV q6h; amoxicillin‐clavulanic acid 1.2 g IV q8h‐q12h; cefazolin 0.5–1 g IV q6h‐q8h; cefradine 0.5–1 g IV q6h; cefuroxime 0.75–1.5 g IVq8h; moxalactam 1–2 g IV q8h; cephamycins | Ceftriaxone; cefotaxime; clindamycin; doxycycline; quinolones | |
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| Cefotaxime 1–2 g IV q6h‐q8h; ceftriaxone 1–2 g IV q24h; levofloxacin 0.5–0.75 g IV once daily; moxifloxacin 0.4 g IV once daily; gemifloxacin 0.32 g oral, once daily | High‐dose ampicillin (2 g IV q6h); vancomycin; norvancomycin; linezolid; ceftaroline | |
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| Ampicillin 4–8 g/d IV, divided into 2–4 doses; ampicillin‐sulbactam 1.5–3 g IV q6h; amoxicillin‐clavulanic acid 1.2 g IV q8h‐q12h; cefuroxime 0.75–1.5 g IV q8h; moxalactam 1–2 g IV q8h; cephamycins | Quinolones | |
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| Amoxicillin‐clavulanic acid 1.2 g IV q6h or q8h; ampicillin‐sulbactam 1.5–3 g IV q6h; cefuroxime 0.75–1.5 g IV q8h; cefotaxime 1–2 g IV q6h‐q8h; ceftriaxone 1–2 g IV q24h | Quinolones | 25%‐35% of strains are β‐lactamase positive, and highly resistant to TMP‐SMX and doxycycline. |
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| Amoxicillin‐clavulanic acid 1.2 g IV q8h‐q12h; ampicillin‐sulbactam 1.5–3 g IV q6h; cefuroxime 0.75–1.5 g IV q8h; cephamycins | Ceftriaxone; cefotaxime; quinolones | |
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| Oxacillin 1–2 g IV q4h; cloxacillin 2–4 g/d IV, divided into 2–4 doses; ampicillin 4–8 g/d IV, divided into 2–4 doses; amoxicillin‐clavulanic acid 1.2 g IV q8h‐q12h; ampicillin‐sulbactam 1.5–3 g IV q6h; cefazolin 0.5–1 g IV q6h‐q8h; cefradine 1–2 g IV q6h or q8h; cefuroxime 0.75–1.5 g IV q8h; moxalactam 1–2 g IV q8h; cephamycins | Clindamycin; azithromycin; erythromycin; clarithromycin; doxycycline; minocycline; cefotaxime; ceftriaxone; cefepime; levofloxacin; gemifloxacin; moxifloxacin | The target trough blood concentration of vancomycin is 15–20 mg/L. Some authors recommend a loading dose of 25–30 mg/kg. Two randomized trials showed that the efficacy of linezolid was equivalent to that of vancomycin, and subgroup analysis showed that MRSA patients who showed improvement had a higher survival rate in linezolid group compared with vancomycin group. Vancomycin and linezolid should not be used together due to antagonistic effect. |
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| Vancomycin 1 g IV q12h or 0.5 g q6h; linezolid 600 mg IV q12h | Norvancomycin; teicoplanin; ceftaroline; tigecycline; rifampin; fosfomycin; TMP‐SMX (used in combination, not suitable for monotherapy) | If MIC of vancomycin is ≥ 2 mg/L, an alternative regimen should be used. |
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| β‐lactams with anti‐ | Aminoglycosides | When aminoglycosides are combined with cyclosporin, vancomycin, amphotericin B, or radiographic contrast agent, the risk for renal toxicology increases. Such combined therapy are applicable for patients with severe CAP, but the therapeutic value is controversial |
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| Cefuroxime 0.75–1.5 g IV q8h; cefotaxime1–2 g IV q6h‐q8h; ceftriaxone1–2 g IV q24h; β‐lactams‐β‐lactamase inhibitor combinations | Cefepime; levofloxacin; moxifloxacin; gemifloxacin; aminoglycosides | ESBLs can inactivate all cephalosporins. It is difficult to predict the activity of β‐lactams‐β‐lactamase combinations. ESBLs‐producing strains are also resistant to all quinolones and most aminoglycosides. |
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| Carbapenems | Cefepime; tigecycline | Fourth‐generation cephalosporins and piperacillin‐ tazobactam have |
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| Carbapenems | Cefepime; tigecycline | Quinolones can be effective against susceptible strains, but most strains are resistant. Some bacterial strains are susceptible to injectable II and III generation cephalosporins in vitro, but are resistant to ceftazidime. |
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| Polymyxin B 15 000–25 000 U/kg per day, IV, in 2 separate doses | Tigecycline; drugs to which pathogens are relatively susceptible could be selected for combination therapy |
Patients infected with these bacterial strains are unresponsive to injectable II or III generation cephalosporins. Tigecycline has in vitro activity. |
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| Ampicillin‐sulbactam 3 g IV q6h; cefoperazone‐sulbactam 2–4 g IV q12h or q8h; quinolones | Cefoperazone‐sulbactam + amikacin or minocycline; polymyxin B; polymyxin E; tigecycline; sulbactam |
The sulbactam component in ampicillin‐sulbactam has antibacterial activity with an appropriate dosage of 3 g IV q6h, and has been reported to be superior to polymyxin E
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| Penicillins‐β‐lactamase‐inhibitor combinations | Clindamycin; metronidazole; doxycycline; moxifloxacin; carbapenems | |
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| Doxycycline first dose 200 mg oral, followed by 100 mg oral, twice daily; minocycline 100 mg oral, twice daily; levofloxacin 500 mg IV or oral, once daily; moxifloxacin 400 mg IV or oral, once daily | Azithromycin; clarithromycin; gemifloxacin | The application of macrolides should be based on local susceptibility data. Clindamycin and β‐lactams are ineffective on |
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| Azithromycin 500 mg IV once daily; clarithromycin 500 mg oral, twice daily; erythromycin 500 mg IV q6h; levofloxacin 500 mg IV or oral, once daily; moxifloxacin 400 mg IV or oral, once daily | Doxycycline; minocycline; gemifloxacin | |
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| Azithromycin 500 mg IV once daily or erythromycin 0.5 g IV q6h; levofloxacin 500 mg IV or oral, once daily; gemifloxacin 0.32 g oral, once daily; moxifloxacin 400 mg IV or oral, once daily | Doxycycline; clarithromycin; minocycline; TMP‐SMX; above‐mentioned quinolones + rifampin or azithromycin | When quinolones are combined with macrolides, the potential risk of abnormalities in cardiac electrophysiology should be alerted. |
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| Doxycycline 100 mg IV or oral, twice daily; minocycline100 mg oral, twice daily | Azithromycin; clarithromycin; erythromycin; chloramphenicol | Fever and other symptoms can normally be controlled within 48–72 h, but antibiotics should be continued for at least 10 d. |
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| Doxycycline 200 mg oral, once daily; minocycline 100 mg oral, twice daily | Erythromycin; chloramphenicol; levofloxacin; moxifloxacin; gemifloxacin | Q fever |
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| Ceftazidime 30–50 mg/kg IVq8h; imipenem 20 mg/kg IV q8h. Treatment continued for at least 10 d. If the condition is improved, therapy may be switched to oral treatment. |
Intravenous therapy followed by oral treatment: chloramphenicol 10 mg/kg q6h × 8 weeks; doxycycline 2 mg/kg twice daily × 20 weeks; TMP‐SMX 5 mg (based on TMP) twice daily × 20 weeks Quinolones | Pregnant women: oral amoxicillin‐clavulanic acid sustained‐release tablets 1000/62.5 mg, 2 tabs twice daily × 20 weeks. Even with very good compliance, relapse rate is still 10%. The maximum daily dose of ceftazidime is 6 g. Tigecycline: susceptible in vitro, but no clinical data. 12%‐80% of bacterial strains are resistant to TMP‐SMX in Thailand. Quinolones are effective in vitro. Doxycycline + chloramphenicol + TMP‐SMX has better sustained efficacy compared with doxycycline monotherapy. Meropenem is also effective |
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| Azithromycin 0.5 g IV once daily; erythromycin 0.5 g IV q6h | TMP‐SMX; clarithromycin | |
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| TMP‐SMX 0.48 g (80 mg + 400 mg dosage form) oral, 2–3 tablets, tid; ticarcillin‐clavulanic acid 3.2 g IV q6h‐q8h | Cefoperazone‐sulbactam; piperacillin‐tazobactam; ceftazidime; moxifloxacin; ticarcillin‐clavulanic acid + aztreonam | Ticarcillin‐clavulanic acid + TMP‐SMX; ticarcillin‐clavulanic acid + ciprofloxacin have synergetic antibacterial effect in vitro. |
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| TMP‐SMX 15 mg/kg daily (based on TMP) oral, divided into 2–4 doses, for 3–4 weeks, followed by 60 mg/kg daily, oral, divided into 2–4 doses, for 3–4 months | Imipenem‐cilastatin + amikacin 7.5 mg/kg IV q12h, × 3–4 weeks; followed by TMP‐SMX for 3–4 months | The duration of therapy is 3–4 months for primary pulmonary nocardiosis. |
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| Ampicillin 2 g IV q8h, for 4–6 weeks, followed by penicillin V potassium 2–4 g/kg per day, oral, for 3–6 weeks | Piperacillin; amoxicillin‐clavulanic acid; ampicillin‐sulbactam; piperacillin‐tazobactam; doxycycline; minocycline; ceftriaxone; clindamycin; chloramphenicol; azithromycin; erythromycin; moxifloxacin; imipenem; ertapenem | Penicillin G is an alternative to ampicillin: 10–20 million U/d, IV, divided into 4–6 separate doses, for 4–6 weeks. |
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| Gentamicin 5 mg/kg IV once daily | Doxycycline; minocycline |
TMP‐SMX can be used to prevent Chloramphenicol is effective but with high toxicity. Cephalosporins and quinolones are effective in animal models. |
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Ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV q12h or levofloxacin 500 mg IV once daily or doxycycline 100 mg IV q12h + clindamycin 900 mg IV q8h ± rifampin 300 mg IV q12h; Switch to oral therapy and reduce dosage after improvement: ciprofloxacin 500 mg oral, twice daily; clindamycin 450 mg oral, q8h, and rifampin 300 mg oral, twice daily. Duration of therapy is 60 d. | Penicillin G |
Clindamycin can inhibit the production of toxins. Rifampin can enter cerebrospinal fluid and into cells. If the isolated pathogen is susceptible to penicillin, penicillin 4 million U IV q4h should be given. If structural or inductive β‐lactamase is produced, penicillin or ampicillin should not be used alone. Cephalosporins or TMP‐SMX should not be used. Erythromycin and azithromycin have borderline activity. Clarithromycin is effective. Moxifloxacin is effective, but without clinical data. |
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Oseltamivir 75 mg oral, twice daily × 5 d, for obesity patients, the dosage is increased to 150 mg oral, twice daily; for patients with severe influenza, increased dosage (150 mg twice daily) and prolonged course of treatment (eg, ≥ 10 d) should be considered. The safety of high dose therapy for pregnant women has not been established. Zanamivir 2 sprays (5 mg/spray) twice daily × 5 d |
Amantadine; rimantadine Peramivir 600 mg IV once daily for at least 5 d can be considered for patients with severe life‐threatening conditions | For patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma, zanamivir can potentially cause bronchospasm. Most epidemic viral strains are resistant to amantadine and rimantadine. |
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| Cidofovir 1 mg/kg IV once daily × 2 weeks, and oral probenecid 2 g should be given every time before injection. And 1 g oral probenecid should be taken at 2 h and 8 h post‐infusion. Renal functions should be monitored. | The drug is contraindicated when serum creatinine >1.5 mg/dL, CrCl ≤ 55 mL/min, or urine protein ≥ 100 mg/L. | |
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| No specific drug so far | Ribavirin 0.5–1 g/d IV q12h (not recommended for regular use) | Therapies are mainly symptomatic treatments, including fluid replacement and oxygen therapy. |
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| No specific drug so far | Pegylated interferon α‐2a subcutaneous, 180 μg weekly × 2 weeks + ribavirin first dose 2000 mg po, followed by 1200 mg oral, q8h × 4 d, then 600 mg oral, q8h × 4–6 d (the dose of ribavirin should be adjusted based on liver functions, and kidney functions should be monitored) | Retrospective studies showed that the therapy could increase 14‐day survival in patients with severe conditions, but 28‐day survival was not be increased. It may cause decrease of hemoglobin level. |
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| Voriconazole 6 mg/kg IV q12h on the first day, followed by 4 mg/kg IV q12h or 200 mg oral, q12h (body weight ≥ 40 kg), or 100 mg oral, q12h (body weight < 40 kg); amphotericin B liposome 3–5mg/kg daily IV, or amphotericin B liposome compound 5 mg/kg daily IV, or amphotericin B 0.75–1 mg/kg daily IV (initial dose 1–5 mg/d) | Itraconazole; caspofungin; micafungin; posaconazole |
Voriconazole has better efficacy than amphotericin B. For patients with CrCl < 50 mL/min, the drug should only be taken orally. IV administration is contraindicated. The efficacy rate of caspofungin is about 50% for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis. It can be used as a rescue therapy. The role of combination therapy is unclear, it is not regularly recommended, but can be considered for refractory cases. The classic combination treatment is echinocandins combined with amphotericin B liposome. |
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| Amphotericin B liposome 3–5 mg/kg daily IV or amphotericin B liposome compound 5 mg/kg daily IV or amphotericin B 0.75–1 mg/kg daily IV (initial dose 1–5 mg/d) | Posaconazole | The complete or partial response rate of posaconazole rescue regimen is 60%‐80%. |
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| TMP‐SMX (160/800 mg dosage from) 2 tabs oral, q8h × 21 d or dapsone 100 mg oral, once daily + TMP 5 mg/kg oral, tid × 21 d | Clindamycin 300–450 mg oral, q6h + primaquine base 15 mg oral, once daily, for 21 d, or atovaquone suspension 750 mg oral, twice daily, at meal time × 21 d | Patients with severe life‐threatening conditions can take glucocorticoids: start with prednisone 40 mg oral, twice daily × 5 d, followed by 40 mg oral, once daily × 5 d, then 20 mg oral, once daily × 11 d. |
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| Glucocorticoids should be given 15–30 min before TMP‐SMX which should be administered in a dosage of 15 mg/kg/d divided into separate doses once per 8 h (calculated based on TMP content) or 2 tabs once per 8 h, continued for 21 d | Clindamycin 600 mg IV q8h + primaquine base 30 mg oral, once daily; pentamidine isethionate 4 mg/kg daily IV for 21 d | Although TMP‐SMX‐resistant |
The selection of antimicrobial agents should ultimately depend on susceptibility testing results and the opinions of local microbiological specialists. The appropriate dosage of antimicrobial agents should be based on local data. CrCl, creatinine clearance; MIC, minimum inhibitory concentration; MRSA, methicillin‐resistant S. aureus; TMP‐SMX, trimethoprim‐sulfamethoxazole.
a Cefoxitin 1–2 g IV q8h‐q6h; cefmetazole 1–2 g q8h‐q12h; cefotetan 1–3 g IV q12h (maximum dose ≤ 6 g once daily); cefminox 1 g IV q8h.
b Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin (not as first‐line therapy for penicillin‐susceptible strains); ciprofloxacin is mainly used in treatment of gram‐negative bacteria (including H. influenzae).
c Ticarcillin 3 g IV q4h‐q6h; piperacillin 2–4 g IV q4h‐q6h; piperacillin‐tazobactam 4.5 g IV q6h‐q8h; aztreonam 1–2 g IV q8h‐q12h; ceftazidime 1–2 g IV q8h‐q12h; cefepime 1–2 g IV q8h‐q12h; cefoperazone 1–2 g IV q8h; cefoperazone‐sulbactam (2:1) 3 g q8h‐q12h; imipenem‐cilastatin (for P. aeruginosa) 500 mg (based on imipenem) IV q6h‐q8h; meropenem 1–2 g IV q8h; panipenem‐betamipron 1–2 g IV q8h‐q12h; biapenem 0.3 g IV q12h.
d Gentamicin or tobramycin 5.1 mg/kg daily IV, once daily; amikacin 15 mg/kg IV once daily; etimicin 0.2–0.3 g IV once daily; netilmicin 6.5 mg/kg IV, once daily.
e Piperacillin‐tazobactam 4.5 g IV q6h‐q8h; ticarcillin‐clavulanic acid 3.2 g IV q6h‐q8h; ampicillin‐sulbactam 1.5–3 g IV q6h or amoxicillin‐clavulanic acid 1.2 g IV q8h‐q12h.
f Imipenem‐cilastatin 500 mg (based on imipenem) IV q6h‐q8h; meropenem 1–2 g IV q8h; ertapenem 1–2 g IV q24h; panipenem‐betamipron 1–2 g IV q8h‐q12h; biapenem 0.3 g IV q12h.
g Sulbactam: 4–8 g/d IV, divided into 2–4 doses.
Figure 1Flowchart for failure of initial treatment
Epidemiological and clinical characteristics and treatment of pneumonia caused by major respiratory tract viruses
| Respiratory tract virus | Key epidemiological features | Clinical characteristics | Radiographic characteristics | Antiviral treatment |
|---|---|---|---|---|
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| The epidemic season in the north is from November to the end of February of next year, and in the south – another peak season is from May to August. Influenza outbreak can occur in any season. High‐risk populations include the elderly (age ≥ 65 years), patients with underlying diseases, obesity, or immunosuppression and second‐ to third‐trimester pregnant women. | Fever, cough, normal or decreased WBC, normal or decreased lymphocytes, CRP < 20 mg/L, creatine kinase or lactate dehydrogenase can increase. The disease can progress rapidly in some patients, causing persistent high fever, severe dyspnea and intractable hypoxemia. | For patients with severe conditions, ground‐glass opacities or patchy nodule infiltrates can appear in bilateral lungs, which may be associated with consolidation | Oseltamivir, zanamivir, peramivir |
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| Human beings lack immunity against avian influenza virus. Individuals in close contact with domestic animals dying from unknown reasons, livestock markets, or patients with confirmed diagnosis of avian influenza constitute the high exposure population. | Similar to pneumonia caused by influenza virus, but decreased WBC, lymphocyte count and platelet count are more common and there is a more significant increase in alanine transaminase, lactate dehydrogenase, and/or creatine kinase. Hemoptysis and abnormal coagulation functions are more commonly seen among patients infected with H7N9. | Similar to pneumonia caused by influenza virus | Same as pneumonia caused by influenza virus |
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| The epidemic season is from February to May. The virus is commonly seen in adults without underlying disease. | Similar to pneumonia caused by influenza virus; more common in immunocompetent adults | Patients with severe conditions primarily show pulmonary consolidation, which may be associated with ground‐glass opacities or patchy nodule infiltrates in unilateral or bilateral lungs or multiple lobes | Cidofovir |
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| RSV is an important pathogen of lower respiratory tract infections in infants and young children. In adults, infections are more common in the elderly or individuals with underlying cardiac or pulmonary diseases or immunosuppression | Similar to pneumonia caused by influenza virus | Characteristic manifestations are nodule opacities or tree‐in‐bud sign associated with bronchial wall thickening |
Intravenous or oral ribavirin (not recommended for routine use) (II B) |
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| The general population are generally vulnerable. Special attention should be paid to history of travel or business trip to epidemic regions such as Saudi Arabia, UAE and so on, or history of close contact with patients with confirmed diagnosis of MERS. | Fever, associated with chills and shivers, cough, shortness of breath, muscle soreness; gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, nausea and vomiting and abdominal pain are relatively common. Decreased platelet count, decreased lymphocyte count and increased lactate dehydrogenase and creatinine may be observed in some patients | Mainly pulmonary involvement in subpleural and basal segments of lungs; broad appearance of ground‐glass opacities, which may be associated with consolidation. Pleural effusion, interlobular septal thickening may also appear | Ribavirin combined with interferon |